im having and argument with a m8 at the moment and what he says is that there are no undertones in a given sound we were talking about harmonic series and mixing we got really heated on the subject …
I said if you have a (e.g) a bass sound with a fundamrntal freq@100hz then you will have harmonics at 200then 300 etc we both agreed on that but when i said you can also go the other way ie @50hz he said no not possible and that would be the fundamental,
in the harmonic series it says that its the main lowest peak in the sound is the fundamental, followed by multiples of the fundamental …
I think this is not acurate as i know undertones do exist
my question to everyone is this how do yo approach this do you take into account that theres sound below the fundamental (undertones0 or do you go with the main peak and follow from there , and not worry about what is below that … just want to ask out of interest cheers egg2
I honestly dont take it into account at all. Yes, there are slight untertones, but VERY minimal. If you look at a spectrum, you are talking something dumb like -48db a few hz under the fundamental and thats about it. Nothing to worry about at all really. Just my opinion. However, not to be a ****, but I think that might be a bit too advanced for this forum. Definately something to bring up to the SLUTZ tho!
I use the process of ears first. Unless you are trying to be ultra geeky (which, lets face it we all love) I can’t see the worry about a fundamental frequency being a concern unless it’s just to settle an argument. We don’t worry about the noise floor bubbling away the whole length of the frequency spectrum so why worry about that.
exactly that , really just for arguments sake no real importance was just interested as my m8 is a proper tech head as am i and he likes to think he knows best … i guess i win !
